Solutions for Assignment 8

41. Apply Ampere's Law to the dashed path, to get

Integral (B . dA) = m0 Ienclosed

B h = 0

B = 0

and the last equation is a contradiction, since a magnetic field is in fact present. The only assumption in this argument is the shape of the lines of B, which must therefore be drawn incorrectly.

You can cure the problem by letting the lines of B curve outward near the edge of the magnet. If done properly, the integration along the horizontal sides of the dotted path can exactly canel the integration along the vertical side inside the magnetic field.


42.

You can find the magnetic field due to I1 by drawing a circle a distance r from the wire and applying Ampere's Law:

Integral(B.dl) = m0 I1

B = m0 I1 / (2 p r)

The field goes into the page inside the rectangular loop. By the right-hand rule, all the forces on the loop are perpendicular to the wire pointing away from the center of the rectangle. The two forces on the wires of length are the same size but opposite in direction, so they cancel. The forces on the wire closest to I1 and on the wire further from I1 are, respectively:

F1 = m0 I1I2 L / (2 p a ) and

F2 = - m0 I1I2 L / [2 p (a + b) ]

taking up to be the positive direction. The sum of these two is the net force on the loop,

F = m0I1I2 L b / [2 p a (a + b) ]


43. Done in class.


44.
Known
Radius of coilR
Length of coilL
Turns per unit lengthn
Total turnsN = n L
To determine

  Magnetic field B(x) at P
The y and z components of the magnetic field vanish by symmetry. The Biot-Savart law for the x component of the field in this geometry is

dBx = - m0 I dL sin q / (4 p r2)

We can also tell from the diagram that

r2 = R2 + (x - x')2

sin q = R / r

Thus q and the distance to point P is the same from any point on the loop at x'. The integral around the loop is therefore easy and gives

Bx(x) = - m0 I R sin q / (2 r2)

         = - (1/2) m0 I (R2 / r3)

(The x-dependence is hidden in r). To sum over all the coils, we use the same trick we used last semester in getting the average "weight" of marbles falling onto a scale: multiply by the number of coils per meter and integrate over dx'. The expression is

Bx = - integral-L/2L/2 [n (1/2) m0 I (R2 / r3]

The integral is done by using the trigonometric substitution

x - x' = R cot q

dx' = R dq / sin2 q

where q is the same angle as shown in the diagram; in other words sin q = r / R . We get

Bx = - integralqi qf [(1/2) m0 I n sin q dq ]

which gives

Bx = (1/2) m0I n [cos qf - cos qi ]

where qi and qf are the values of q at the leftmost coil and rightmost coil, respectively. Analytically,

cos qi = {x + L/2} / {sqrt [R2 + (x + L/2)2 ] }

cos qf = {x - L/2} / {sqrt [R2 + (x - L/2)2 ] }


45. Use the diagram and notation of the previous problem.

Using the (previous) diagram the distances between P and the two ends of the coil are

ri = x + L/2

rf = x - L/2

and each r << R when P is far from the ends of the coil. Writing the magnetic field from problem 44 in terms of ri and rf, we get

Bx = (1/2) m0 I n [rf / sqrt(R2 + rf2 ) - ri / sqrt(R2 + ri2 ) ].

Expanding in terms of the small ratio ri/R we have

ri/ sqrt(R2 + ri2) = (ri / R) / sqrt(1 + ri2 / R2 ) = 1 - R2 / (2 ri2 )

and a similar expression involving rf . These two expressions can be substituted into the expression for B to give

Bx   =   (1/4) m0 I n ( R2 / ri2 - R2 / rf2 )

= (m0/4p) I n p R2 (1 / ri2 - 1 / rf2 ) ,

which is the result we were supposed to get.


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